"The proof of (5) only goes through for $n\in\ma..."

https://arbital.com/p/4y3

by Kaya Fallenstein Jun 29 2016


The proof of (5) only goes through for $~$n\in\mathbb{N}$~$.

You can prove a version of (8) from (5), namely, $~$f(b)=1\Rightarrow f(b^q)=q$~$ for $~$q\in\mathbb{Q}$~$, but this doesn't pin down $~$f$~$ completely, unless you include a continuity condition.