"The proof of (5) only goes through for $n\in\ma..."

https://arbital.com/p/4y3

by Kaya Fallenstein Jun 29 2016


The proof of (5) only goes through for nN.

You can prove a version of (8) from (5), namely, f(b)=1f(bq)=q for qQ, but this doesn't pin down f completely, unless you include a continuity condition.